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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 12:02

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why wasn't Queen as successful in America as in other countries? Then, after Radio Ga Ga, they couldn't even get into the top 40 in America even when these songs were top 10 hits everywhere else in the world.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

How do you feel about Donald Trump signing an executive order that says there are only two genders?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.